White Privilege, Jewish Privilege, or Bankster-Cartel Privilege?

Some questions raised by the Sam Bankster-Fraud saga and the public conversation about "privilege" that ensued.

Sam Bankster-Fraud: did he benefit from white privilege, Jewish privilege, or bankster-cartel privilege?

[Note: I originally posted this as a “Thread,”¹ which was my first time trying out this feature in Substack. It will probably also be the last time, as the formatting in Threads is shite, you cannot edit it once it’s been posted, etc. Since the “Thread” is barely readable due to formatting, I’m just going to redo it as a regular post. My apologies for any confusion and for the extra email in your inboxes.]

This is my first time starting a "thread" on Substack, so I figured we could start with something nice and inoffensive: the issue of "white privilege" and "Jewish privilege," as illustrated by the recent case of Sam Bankster-Fraud.

Earlier this year, when the charges against SBF were dropped, the anti[white]racist crew on Twitter started proclaiming that it was yet another example of white privilege. Then, some folks on the dissident Right started replying with "Actually, he's Jewish;" and that happened so many times that the phrase started trending on Twitter. Now, are either of these accusations (that he has white privilege or that he has Jewish privilege) accurate? And if so, what do these privileges even mean and how to they operate? And what should our response to these alleged privileges be? Or is there a different form of privilege at play here? Something like a “bankster-cartel” privilege that interacts with other aspects of SBF’s identity, while nevertheless being conceptually distinct and operating independently of them?

I'll give you my take on it, and then you can tell me whether you think I'm right, wrong, retarded, or whatever.